why does a whistle change whether a loose-ball technical is time-serving? May 18, 2021 World Games 2014 0 Forum Questions In the first two scenarios covered in the last meeting, Team A commits a loose-ball technical foul and then Team B commits a personal foul. In the first case, the personal foul occurs before the whistle is sounded; in the second case, the personal foul is committed after the whistle stops play. In the first case, both players serve time; in the second case, only Team B serves. What is the rationale for the different treatment? Question File Add new DuBan's Answer: Visual Text Kratz's Answer: Visual Text McCarrick's Answer: Visual Text Riti's Answer: Visual Text Paul for the win. Tyma's Answer: Visual Text The simplest answer is, "By rule." When the second foul is committed before the whistle, it has occurred on the same live play. Therefore, both fouls are simultaneous; in the case of simultaneous fouls, per<strong> 7.6.3.b.2</strong>, both players serve penalty time. When the second foul is committed after the whistle, it is a dead-ball foul. The loose-ball technical occurred on a live play, and the whistle led to the adjudication of that foul (possession awarded). The dead-ball foul is enforced as a single offense. Answer File Question Answered Yes No
